EN
Given a topological space ⟨X,𝓣⟩ ∈ M, an elementary submodel of set theory, we define $X_M$ to be X ∩ M with topology generated by ${U ∩ M: U ∈ 𝓣 ∩ M}$. Suppose $X_M$ is homeomorphic to the irrationals; must $X = X_M$? We have partial results. We also answer a question of Gruenhage by showing that if $X_M$ is homeomorphic to the "Long Cantor Set", then $X = X_M$.