EN
What should be assumed about the integral polynomials $f₁(x),...,f_{k}(x)$ in order that the solvability of the congruence $f₁(x)f₂(x) ⋯ f_{k}(x) ≡ 0 (mod p)$ for sufficiently large primes p implies the solvability of the equation $f₁(x)f₂(x) ⋯ f_{k}(x) = 0$ in integers x? We provide some explicit characterizations for the cases when $f_j(x)$ are binomials or have cyclic splitting fields.